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Leakage inductance modeling
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If we take simple 1: 1
transformer, with equal winding inductances L and mutual
inductance M, and with equal leakage inductances LL for each
winding. Then we define K = M/L =
(L - LL)/L, from which we can get LL = L(1-K). This can be
extended to any turns ratio, provided LL1/L1 = LL2/L2. Some
special constructions do not meet this. Best wishes
John Woodgate OOO-Own Opinions Only
www.woodjohn.uk
Rayleigh, Essex UK
MAY THE VIRUS NOT BE WITH YOU
dum nisi ex silvis sumus
On 2020-07-10 22:32, hyu hyu via
groups.io wrote:
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Hello and thanks to everyone for your replies. Bordodynov, based on your first .asc schematic I will use L(1-k), it seems is the same this equation or explicitly connecting the leakage inductance. Hyu
On Friday, July 10, 2020, 03:18:34 PM GMT-3, John Woodgate <jmw@...> wrote:
Yes. This is often interpreted
as two different definitions of K, with terms like 'coupling
coefficient', coupling constant', 'coupling ratio' being used.
Some textbooks evade the issue by defining K as mutual
inductance M divided by sqrt(L1*L2) and not mentioning K when
discussing leakage inductance. Best wishes
John Woodgate OOO-Own Opinions Only
www.woodjohn.uk
Rayleigh, Essex UK
MAY THE VIRUS NOT BE WITH YOU
dum nisi ex silvis sumus
On 2020-07-10 18:26, Andy I wrote:
hyu hyu wrote, " I
was reading the LTspice help and realize the Leakage inductance
is calculated with coupling coefficient squared." Jerry Lee Marcel asked, "Where do you see that?" It's here: Lleak = sqrt(L1*L2)*(1-K*K) See it here: LTspice Help > F.A.Q. > Simulating Transformers One danger with transformers, is that there are multiple terms and definitions and one needs to be extra careful about using them consistently. Andy |
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Yes. This is often interpreted
as two different definitions of K, with terms like 'coupling
coefficient', coupling constant', 'coupling ratio' being used.
Some textbooks evade the issue by defining K as mutual
inductance M divided by sqrt(L1*L2) and not mentioning K when
discussing leakage inductance. Best wishes
John Woodgate OOO-Own Opinions Only
www.woodjohn.uk
Rayleigh, Essex UK
MAY THE VIRUS NOT BE WITH YOU
dum nisi ex silvis sumus
On 2020-07-10 18:26, Andy I wrote:
hyu hyu wrote, " I was reading the LTspice help and realize the Leakage inductance is calculated with coupling coefficient squared." |
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hyu hyu wrote, " I was reading the LTspice help and realize the Leakage inductance is calculated with coupling coefficient squared."
Jerry Lee Marcel asked, "Where do you see that?" It's here: Lleak = sqrt(L1*L2)*(1-K*K) See it here: LTspice Help > F.A.Q. > Simulating Transformers One danger with transformers, is that there are multiple terms and definitions and one needs to be extra careful about using them consistently. Andy |
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On Fri, Jul 10, 2020 at 06:11 AM, hyu hyu wrote:
Where do you see that? Of course, and that's how LTspice behaves. You can compare schematics done with a K statement with another done with explicit leakage inductances and you will see the results are identical. At least that's how it works for me. |
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On Thu, Jul 9, 2020 at 09:11 PM, hyu hyu wrote:
To model leakage inductance in LTspice use the LTwiki definition. That is exactly how LTspice does it. In the lab since one measures a series connection of windings (input winding measured, output winding shorted), it is not possible to directly measure the leakage inductance associated with an individual winding. |
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Hello everyone, I was reading the LTspice help and realize the Leakage inductance is calculated with coupling coefficient squared. But in LTwiki and other sources its calculated as Leakage = L (1 - k) , no square What am I missing? Which formula do you recommend to use to model the transformer? or use an explicit leakage inductance? Thanks in advance One source:
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